1
Q
A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circ*mstances, you should:
A
assess whether or not the patient’s mental condition is impared
2
Q
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:
A
assault
3
Q
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
A
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
4
Q
As an EMT, the performance or your duties will be compared to that of:
A
another EMT
5
Q
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you:
A
may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority
6
Q
During your monthly internal quality(QI) improvement meeting, you review several patient care reports(PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient’s name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you:
A
are in violation of HIPPA because you did not remove from the PCR beforhand
7
Q
If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
A
it was not performed in the eyes of the law
8
Q
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
A
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself
9
Q
In order for a do not resuscitate(DNR) order to be valid, it must:
A
clearly state the patient’s medical problem
10
Q
In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
A
that inadequate patient care was administered
11
Q
In which of the following circ*mstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
A
the patient is competent and signs a release form
12
Q
In which of the following situations does the EMT not have a legal duty to act?
A
a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty
13
Q
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
A
not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
14
Q
Putrefaction is defined as:
A
decomposition of the body’s tissue
15
Q
Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct?
A
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time
16
Q
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
A
medical director
17
Q
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
A
standard of care
18
Q
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
A
provide competent care that meets current standards
19
Q
Two EMT’s witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT’s ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT’s is considered
A
legal but unethical
20
A
protecting patient privacy
21
Q
What type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
A
expressed consent
22
Q
When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient’s condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of:
A
negligence
23
Q
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located you should:
A
begin resuscitation at once
24
Q
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
A
exercise reasonable care and act prudently
25
Q
When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:
A
begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the automated external defibrillator(AED) as soon as possible
26
Q
Where would you must likely find information regarding a patient’s wishes to be an organ donor?
A
driver’s license
27
Q
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
A
duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
28
Q
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is most correct?
A
a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated
29
Q
Which of the following is not considered to be protected health information(PHI)?
A
location of the call
30
Q
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
A
deviation from the standard care that may result in further injury
31
Q
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
A
a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
32
Q
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts informed consent?
A
an EMT advises a patient of the risk of receiving treatment
33
Q
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
A
attempted suicide
34
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct?
A
It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
35
Q
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
A
Implied consent
implied think that if they are conscious they would consent so the consent is implied by their state.
36
Q
While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your most appropriate action should be to:
A
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash
37
Q
While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should:
A
contact medical control and notify him or her of the error
38
Q
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critical injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to:
A
provide immediate patient care
39
Q
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
A
have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased
40
Q
You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient’s parents but has not been successful. You should:
A
provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once
41
Q
You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should:
A
quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient
42
Q
You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert, but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should:
A
ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care
43
Q
You are treating a man with a closed head injury following an assault by a burglar. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should:
A
proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary
44
Q
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and had multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child’s parents will be at the scene is approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?
A
Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital
45
Q
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a defective sign of death?
A
dependent lividity
46
Q
You have been tasked by your director to assist in the development of your EMS agency’s institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to:
A
be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening your personnel
47
Q
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious, has slow, shallow breathing, and has week pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient; however, they are unable to locate it. You should:
A
begin treatment and contact medical control as needed
48
Q
You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child’s mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should:
A
try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed
49
Q
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has broken her leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered?
A
expressed consent
50
Q
Your best protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to:
A
thoroughly document the entire event
51
Q
The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct is known as bioethics.
TrueFalse
A
False
52
Q
Immunity laws, which vary from state to state, do not provide immunity when injury or damage is caused by gross negligence or willful misconduct.
TrueFalse
A
True
53
Q
Defamation that is spoken is known as libel.
TrueFalse
A
False
54
Q
Criminal lawsuits for battery are common in health care.
TrueFalse
A
False
55
Q
Once your ambulance is dispatched to an emergency, you have an obligation to respond. What is this called?
Scope of practice
Duty to act
Breach of duty
Mandatory reporting
A
Duty to act
56
Q
You arrive at the scene of a call to find an elderly man complaining of chest pain. You introduce yourself and ask permission to examine him. He nods and extends his arm. Which type of consent is this?
Mature consent
Implied consent
Informed consent
Expressed consent
A
Expressed consent
57
Q
While evaluating a noncritical patient in the field, you received a call from dispatch about a serious four-car accident. You inform the patient whom you are treating that he should have someone take him to his doctor to get checked out; you then leave to attend to the more seriously injured people. This is an example of:
abandonment.
implied consent.
defamation.
res ipso loquitor.
A
abandonment
58
Q
What is the best way to care for your patient once he tells you he does not want to go to the hospital?
Get the police involved.
Ask the patient to sign a refusal form, releasing you from liability.
Order the patient to go to the hospital against his wishes.
Encourage the patient to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens.
A
Encourage the patient to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens.
59
Q
The right of a patient to make decisions concerning his or her health is called:
competence.
patient autonomy.
decision-making capacity.
implied consent.
A
patient autonomy
60
Q
_____ is an obvious sign of death, which is caused by discoloration of the body from pooling of the blood to the lower parts of the body.
Rigor mortis
Dependent lividity
Putrefaction
A presumptive sign
A
Dependent lividity
61
Q
You belong to a small volunteer EMS company and are treating a patient with chest pain. You believe that the administration of aspirin is indicated. You ask the patient if he is allergic to aspirin and he says no. Shortly after you administer the aspirin, the patient develops signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. Later in the hospital, the doctor advises you that the patient’s medical history shows that the patient has an allergy to aspirin. The patient later sues you. Which of the following is your best defense strategy?
Statute of limitations
Governmental immunity
Contributory negligence
Gross negligence
A
Contributory negligence
62
Q
Which of the following should you do to avoid serious ethical or legal issues related to social media posts?
Display logos, uniforms, vehicles, or other markings that associate you with your agency while off duty so that people know your affiliation.
Recognize that free speech does not mean every person has a right to say anything under any circ*mstances and without repercussions.
Only release pertinent patient information, not opinions.
Upload photos of the scene as long as the patient is not identified.
A
Recognize that free speech does not mean every person has a right to say anything under any circ*mstances and without repercussions.
63
Q
Which of the following gives surrogates the right to make decisions for patients regarding their health care in the event that the patient is incapacitated and unable to make such decisions?
Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
Advance directive
Durable power of attorney for health care
Emergency doctrine
A
Durable power of attorney for health care
64
Q
You have responded to a vehicle accident call. Initially, the male patient allows you to splint his broken arm and complete a primary assessment. However, he rescinds consent during transport and demands to be let out of the ambulance. If you refuse, which of the following might you be charged with?
Assault
Battery
Kidnapping
False imprisonment
A
False imprisonment
65
Q
You arrive at the scene of an older woman complaining of chest pain. In assessing her, she holds her arm out for you to take her blood pressure. This is an example of:
implied consent.
informed consent.
expressed consent.
emergency consent.
A
expressed consent
66
Q
Which of the following is an example of abandonment?
An EMT leaves the scene after a competent adult has refused care.
An EMT transfers care of a patient to an emergency department nurse.
An AEMT transfers care of a patient to a paramedic.
An AEMT transfers care of a patient to an EMR.
A
An AEMT transfers care of a patient to an EMR
67
Q
The unauthorized confinement of a person is called:
assault.
battery.
false imprisonment.
slander.
A
false imprisonment
68
Q
Failure of the EMT to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training is called:
libel.
slander.
negligence.
abandonment.
A
negligence
69
Q
An 8-year-old boy was struck by a car, is unconscious, and is bleeding from the mouth. A police officer tells you that he is unable to contact the child’s parents. You should:
continue to treat the child and transport as soon as possible.
cease all treatment until the child’s parents can be contacted.
continue with treatment only if authorized by medical control.
provide airway management only until the parents are contacted.
A
continue to treat the child and transport as soon as possible
70
Q
An advance directive is:
a set of specific guidelines that clearly defines the different types of consent.
a formal list that defines by state law whether a patient has decision-making capacity.
a written document that specifies the care you should provide if the patient is unable to make decisions.
a verbal order given to you by a dying patient’s family regarding whether treatment should be provided.
A
a written document that specifies the care you should provide if the patient is unable to make decisions.
71
Q
Which of the following patients is competent and can legally refuse EMS care?
A confused young female who states that she is the president
A man who is staggering and states that he drank only three beers
A conscious and alert woman who is in severe pain from a broken leg
A diabetic patient who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date
A
A conscious and alert woman who is in severe pain from a broken leg
72
Q
You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of:
assault. - fear of immediate bodily harm
battery. - unlawful touching of a person would be treating without consent.
negligence.
abandonment.
A
assault
73
Q
The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or
she is:
off duty and witnesses a major car accident.
a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call.
paid for his or her services, but is not on duty.
out of his or her jurisdiction and sees a man choking.
A
a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call.
74
Q
Which of the following statements about records and reports is FALSE?
Legally, if it was not documented, it was not performed.
A complete, accurate report is an important safeguard against legal problems.
An incomplete or untidy patient care report is evidence of incomplete or inexpert emergency medical care.
Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient’s hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital.
A
Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient’s hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital.
75
Q
On another call that day, your patient consented to treatment and transport after you told her she could be experiencing a serious
medical emergency. This is an example of:
A. scope of practice.
B. implied consent.
C. serving in the patient’s best interest.
D. an EMS field impression.
A
serving in the patient’s best interest
76
Q
A serious situation, such as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.
A
emergency
77
Q
A person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circ*mstances, is legally considered an adult.
A
emancipated minor
78
Q
Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
A
abandonment
79
Q
A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.
A
morality
80
Q
A medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care
A
duty to act
81
Q
A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions. Also known as an advance directive or a living will.
A
health care directive
82
Q
Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained.
A
informed consent
83
Q
Refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
A
in loco parentis
84
Q
Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
A
implied consent
85
Q
The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
A
ethics
86
Q
Damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
A
compensatory damages
87
Q
Statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good-faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence.
A
Good Samaritan laws
88
Q
The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
A
applied ethics
89
Q
Disclosure of information without proper authorization.
A
breach of confidentiality
90
Q
Unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
A
battery
91
Q
A type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
A
expressed consent
92
Q
Cooling of the body after death until it matches the ambient temperature.
A
algor mortis
93
Q
The principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient’s age.
A
emergency doctrine
94
Q
Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
A
negligence
95
Q
The act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
A
forcible restraint
96
Q
Stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
A
rigor mortis
97
Q
A legal defense that may be raised when the defendant thinks that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
A
contributory negligence
98
Q
Written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
A
do not resuscitate order
99
Q
Most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient.
A
scope of practice
100
Q
The study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care
A
bioethics
101
Q
The phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. This includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
A
discovery
102
Q
Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
A
dependent lividity
103
Q
Able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.
A
competent
104
Q
False and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
A
libel
105
Q
When the EMT or an EMS system is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
A
res ispa loquitur
106
Q
False and damaging information about a person that is communicated by spoken word.
A
slander
107
Q
Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
A
gross negligence
108
Q
The confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent.
A
false imprisonment
109
Q
The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent.
A
kidnapping
110
Q
Damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
A
punitive damages
111
Q
A term relating to medical jurisprudence (law) or forensic medicine.
A
medicolegal
112
Q
Ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
A
decision-making capacity
113
Q
Any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual. This is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient’s medical record or payment history.
A
protected health information
114
Q
Decomposition of body tissues; a definitive sign of death.
A
putrefaction
115
Q
The communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person’s reputation or standing in the community.
A
defamation
116
Q
Written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
A
interrogatories
117
Q
The right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care.
A
patient autonomy
118
Q
Permission to render care.
A
consent
119
Q
The time within which a legal case must be commenced.
A
statute of limitations
120
Q
A theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute.
A
negligence per se
121
Q
Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
A
assault
122
Q
Immediate care or treatment.
A
emergency medical care
123
Q
A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity.
A
durable power of attorney for health care
124
Q
Wrongful acts that give rise to a civil lawsuit.
A
torts
125
Q
Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.
A
advance directive
126
Q
A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity. Also known as a durable power of attorney for health care.
A
health care proxy
127
Q
Written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
A
standard of care
128
Q
Oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
A
depositions
129
Q
When a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency, and/or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
A
proximate causation
130
Q
A
